1. How can a post-industrial society exist as a seperate entity at the national/state scale, when it uses resources from other pre-industrial and labor from other pre-industrial and industrial societies? Is our national economy still distinct or is it dependent on other national economies? How can post-industrial society be defined at national/state scale when the economy apparently transcend these very boundaries (by being dependent on the resources of other societies)?
2. Why has Bell's terminology of the "post-industrial society" become so well known when the point of his book, the growing sector of technology labor and its forcasted implications, has remained largely ignored/invisible by other social sceintists?
3. On page 75 Bell states that in a industrial society, "there is a separation of the economic system from the family system. Is there a seperation between work and home in a post-industrial society, as our homes and persons become increasingly wired?