Saturday, September 25, 2004

bell questions

1. How can a post-industrial society exist as a seperate entity at the national/state scale, when it uses resources from other pre-industrial and labor from other pre-industrial and industrial societies? Is our national economy still distinct or is it dependent on other national economies? How can post-industrial society be defined at national/state scale when the economy apparently transcend these very boundaries (by being dependent on the resources of other societies)?

2. Why has Bell's terminology of the "post-industrial society" become so well known when the point of his book, the growing sector of technology labor and its forcasted implications, has remained largely ignored/invisible by other social sceintists?

3. On page 75 Bell states that in a industrial society, "there is a separation of the economic system from the family system. Is there a seperation between work and home in a post-industrial society, as our homes and persons become increasingly wired?

1 comment:

pat said...

Hello all.

I really wish I could have been there Monday for your discussion of Bell.

Ellen, I am very interested in your questions 2 and 3 and was curious if there was any discussion that touched on these questions?

Re: #3, it seems that Bell had this all wrong. Instead, what seems to be happening is a conflation of work and home, the breakdown of bounaries between our private and our public spaces. How many of us *don't* check email when on vacation, if in fact we take vacations?